Networking Essentials

QUIZ 1

  1. A 10BaseT network can have a maximum of 1024 transceivers per LAN without some type of extra connectivity device. TRUE
  2. You must ground both ends of a bus network. TRUE
  3. A star topology requires the most amount of cable to wire a medium size network. TRUE
  4. If one computer fails on a star network, the entire network fails. FALSE (only when the hub fails, the entire network fails)
  5. Active hubs regenerate and retransmit the signal on to the wire. TRUE
  6. A star topology is easy to expand and modify. TRUE
  7. The core of a coaxial cable carries the electronic signals, which make up the data. TRUE
  8. Coaxial is less resistant to interference and attenuation than twisted pair. FALSE (coaxial is more resistant)
  9. AUI port, DIX port are all the same type of connector. TRUE
  10. The radio grade for thinnet cable is RG-58. TRUE
  11. Plenum cabling is coaxial that contains polyvinyl chloride and cannot be used in a common air space. FALSE
  12. UTP cable is twisted to provide strength to the cable. FALSE (it is twisted to fight cross-talk)
  13. Cat 5 cable has more twists per foot than Cat 3. TRUE
  14. A bus network that is using the 802.2 standard requires 50 ohm terminators at each end. TRUE
  15. The MAC address is associated with the data link layer. TRUE
  16. A packet needs to have trailers from each layer of the OSI model and a header only from the datalink layer. TRUE
  17. 802.4 will use CSMA/CD on a bus. FALSE
  18. AppleTalk uses CSMA/CD. FALSE
  19. 802.3 has CRC built into the packet. TRUE
  20. The 5-4-3 rule refers to the 802.5 standard using coaxial cable. TRUE
  21. 10BaseFL is a 10 Mbps Ethernet sending a digital signal on UTP cable. FALSE
  22. 10Base2 would need to use a vampire tap. FALSE (10Base5 would need that)
  23. 10Base5 can take 1 segment 185 meters before having problems. FALSE (500 meters)
  24. Active hubs are sometimes known as multiport repeaters. TRUE
  25. A broadcast type of address on a packet will require each machine on the network to process it. TRUE
  26. Which of the following cable type will travel the longest?

    27. A. coaxial B. UTP C. STP D. fiber optic

  27. Which of the following cable type will provide the most resistance to EMI (electro-magnetic interference) ?

    28. A. coaxial B. UTP C. STP D. fiber optic

  28. Which of the following cable type will have the lowest cost per foot?

    29. A. coaxial B. UTP C. STP D. fiber optic

  29. Which of the following cable type will be the easiest to install?

    30. A. coaxial B. UTP C. STP D. fiber optic

  30. Which of the following cable type will be made of glass or plastic?

    31. A. coaxial B. UTP C. STP D. fiber optic

  31. Which of the following cable type will be designated by radio grade?

    32. A. coaxial B. UTP C. STP D. fiber optic

  32. Which of the following cable type will use BNC connectors?

    33. A. coaxial B. UTP C. STP D. fiber optic

  33. Which of the following cable type will be extremely resistant to wire-tapping?

    34. A. coaxial B. UTP C. STP D. fiber optic

  34. Which of the following cable type will be designated by categories?

    35. A. coaxial B. UTP C. STP D. fiber optic

  35. Which of the following cable type will be very easy to wire tap?

    36. A. coaxial B. UTP C. STP D. fiber optic

  36. Which of the following methods of wireless networking is not used with a infrared light transmission?

    37. A. reflective networks B. line-of-sight C. broadband optical telepoint D. spread spectrum

  37. Which of the following cannot be used in a network environment?

    38. A. RG-58/U B. RG-58 A/U C. RG-58 C/U D. RG-62

  38. Which of the following NIC's would be better to install in a server?

    39. A. ISA B. EISA C. MCA D. PCI

  39. Which of the following OSI layers will provide flow control, error handling, and is involved in solving problems concerned with the transmission and reception of packets?

    40. A. transport layer B. data link layer C. presentation layer D. session layer

  40. Which layer was divided into the LLC and MAC sublayers by the IEEE 802 project?

    41. A. transport layer B. data link layer C. presentation layer D. session layer

  41. Which layer determines the format used to exchange data among networked computers?
    A. transport layer B. data link layer C. presentation layer D. session layer
  42. Which protocol is not routable?

    43. A. NWLink B. TCP/IP C. X.25 D. NetBEUI

  43. Which protocol is not used in a LAN?

    44. A. NWLink B. TCP/IP C. X.25 D. NetBEUI

  44. Which media access method is not based on contention?

    45. A. token passing B. CSMA/CD C. Demand priority D. ARC net

  45. Which cable type would not allow you to run a segment of a Ethernet network that is 180 meters?

    46. A. thinnet B. thicknet C. RG-58 D. UTP (only 100 meter)

  46. Which cable type do not have the 5-4-3 rule apply to them?

    47. A. thinnet B. thinknet C. RG-58 D. UTP

  47. Which media access methods would be used on a 802.5 network?

    48. A. CSMA/CA B. CSMA/CD C. token passing D. demand priority

  48. Which media access methods would be used on a 802.3 network?

    49. A. CSMA/CA B. CSMA/CD C. token passing D. demand priority

  49. How many segments can be populated on a 10Base5 network?

    50. A. 5 B. 4 C. 3 D. as many as you want

  50. Terminators are used on all of the following networks except:

A. 10BaseT B. ARC net C. 10Base2 D. 10Base5

 

 

QUIZ 2

  1. The 2 major types of multitasking are preemptive and noncooperative. FALSE (preemptive and cooperative)
  2. The operating system controls the allocation and use of peripheral devices. TRUE
  3. There are 2 major components of network software and they are the software installed on the client and the software installed on the server. TRUE
  4. The redirector intercepts requests in the computer and determines if they should be sent to the hard drive or RAM memory. FALSE
  5. The redirector keeps track of the drive designators that are associated with network resources. TRUE
  6. A redirector can send requests to either computers or peripherals. TRUE
  7. The software that makes it possible for users to share data and peripherals on a machine is called server software and is part of the network operating system. TRUE
  8. Part of the job of the NOS is to coordinate access to the resources available on the network to make sure that two users do not use the same resource at the same time. TRUE
  9. There are both hardware and software tools that can detect problems on the network. TRUE
  1. When naming the server, you should stick to a globally accepted naming convention. TRUE
  2. Every domain is required to have one and only one BDC. FALSE (one PDC or more)
  3. A BDC can function as a file server. TRUE
  4. A member file server can be upgraded to a PDC with only 1 restart. FALSE (must reinstall the operating system)
  5. You can have 2 operating systems on a PDC's hard drive. TRUE
  6. IP addresses use 32-bits. TRUE (xxxxxxxx.xxxxxxxx.xxxxxxxx.xxxxxxxx)
  7. You can tell what the host ID of an IP address is just by looking at it. FALSE
  8. TCP/IP can work on any computer that is configured for it. TRUE
  9. If you did not want to manually configure TCP/IP, you would have to use a WINS server. FALSE (use DHCP server)
  10. TCP/IP will automatically bind to all network cards in the computer. TRUE
  11. To go from one subnetwork to another, you must have a gateway. FALSE (use a router)
  12. You can set up a routing table manually or by using RIP. TRUE
  13. It is easier to set up routing tables by RIP but can cause traffic problems on the network. TRUE
  14. Using WINS, a computer can dynamically register their NetBIOS names and IP resources in a routed TCP/IP network. TRUE
  15. There is very little difference between installing token ring cards that are on the HCL and ones that are not. FALSE
  16. Microsoft DHCP server is a service that can be added from the service tab in the network control button. TRUE
  17. If a service is listed as manual under the startup column, then you must manually shut it off if you want it to restart. FALSE
  18. Bindings are a series of bound paths from the upper OSI layer network services and protocols to the lowest layer of modem device drivers. FALSE
  19. The computer redirector is responsible for putting the print job onto the network cable. TRUE
  20. The server software will take the job from the cable and put it into a print queue until it can be printed. TRUE
  21. In the client computer, the back end presents data in a useful manner. FALSE
  22. As part of the front-end processes, the client computer formats requests for data. TRUE
  23. The user account contains information that defines a user to the network's security system. TRUE
  24. The guest account is for people who do not have a valid user account but need temporary access to the network. TRUE
  25. Two key pieces of information that should be entered when creating a user account are the account name and the rights given to the account. FALSE (only need username)
  26. If a user is currently logged into the network, the only way to revoke all of their privileges is to delete the account they are using. FALSE
  27. The network card of a client machine can be a bottleneck. TRUE
  28. The hard drive controllers on a server can be a bottleneck on the network. TRUE
  29. The performance monitor can tell you what kinds of packets that are being sent on the network at a particular instant. FALSE
  30. The performance monitor can tell you the network utilization. TRUE
  31. The performance monotor can start another program that may adjust the system back into acceptable ranges. TRUE
  32. SNMP stands for simple network management protocol. TRUE
  33. The components of SNMP include hubs, routers, and bridges. TRUE
  34. To install network monitor, you must activate it in the service portion of the network control panel. FALSE
  35. With the proper software, you can capture and analyza a single packet that is on your network. TRUE
  36. In a SNMP environment programs called agents are loaded onto each managed device to monitor network traffic and behavior. TRUE
  37. Using network monitor, you can look at the headers from each protocol used to send a frame. TRUE
  38. The following are the four major threats to the security of a network : unauthorized access, people who think they know what to do, theft, intentional or unintentional damage. TRUE
  39. Training will protect your network from at least 2 of the threats in the last question. TRUE
  40. The best way to secure your server is a very good password. FALSE (the best way is to lock it up)
  41. If you want to see who was changing a password, you would use Auditing.

 

 

QUIZ 3

  1. In a FDDI network, a class A computer will connect to 2 rings and a class B will only connect to 1. FALSE
  2. Digital voltmeters (DMV) test media by sending sonar like pulses along it to determine where line breaks are. FALSE
  3. ISDN is a digital connection that supports 2 B channels and 1 D channel. TRUE
  4. FDDI is a dual counter rotating fiber optic token passing ring topology operating at 100 Mbps. TRUE
  5. In a token passing network signaling is when one computer detects a fault and starts sending a signal over the network. FALSE
  6. The most only types of transmission technologies used for WAN links are asynchronous and cell switching. FALSE
  7. In a packet-switching, all packets are routed along the same virtual circuit to unsure delivery. FALSE
  8. In a packet-switching network, a series of logical connections between two computers is called a switch. TRUE
  9. Frame relay uses a permanent virtual network to transmit set size frames. TRUE
  10. A router strips off one protocol stack and repackages it in the stack from the destination network. FALSE
  11. Routers work at the network layer of the OSI model. TRUE
  12. The two major types of router tables are static and logical. FALSE
  13. ATM stands for Asynchronous Transfer Mode. TRUE
  14. Baud is measurement of the number of wave oscillations per second. TRUE
  15. A bridge works at which layer of the OSI model? Data link layer
  16. A modem modulates digital signals into analog and demodulates analog signals back into digital signals. TRUE
  17. Which of the following devices are used to connect multiple network?

    18. A. bridges B. repeaters C. routers D. intelligent hubs

  18. Synchronous communication uses a start and stop bit to separate character strings. FALSE
  19. Synchronous communication relies on a timing system between two devices. TRUE
  20. Windows NT offers remote access capability as a service and it's called Remote Access Service (RAS). TRUE
  21. A phone line which is in constant use is often referred to as a leased or dedicated line. TRUE
  22. Repeaters work at the physical layer of the OSI model. TRUE ( the most bottom layer)
  23. Repeaters are a good way to control broadcast storms because they don't regenerate random noise. FALSE
  24. Repeaters can connect two segments of similar or dissimilar media. TRUE

    25.  

  25. Bridges work at the data link layer of the OSI model. TRUE
  26. Bridges build their routing tables based on the address of computer that have transmitted data on the network. TRUE
  27. Because repeaters regenerate signals, they are a great device to segment network traffic. FALSE
  28. A bridge is considered more intelligent than a router because a bridge works at a higher level of the OSI model. FALSE
  29. The process of combining two or more signals onto one media is called:

    30. multiplexing B. frequency condensation C. demultiplexing D. modulating

  30. A router will select the best route for the data based on cost and available paths. TRUE
  31. You have a network with 250 PCs. They are using TCP/IP & NetBEUI. You wish to segment into 3 subnets. You want to allow all PCs to use both protocols. Which device would you use?

    32. A. repeater B. brouter C. router D. gateway

  32. You have 2 PCs using 10Base2. They are more than 300 meters apart. Which device would you use to connect them?

    33. A. repeater B. amplifier C. multiplexed D. gateway

  33. Which WAN speed is more than 100 Mbps?

    34. A. ISDN B. X.25 C. frame relay D. ATM

  34. A PC client on an Ethernet network is not able to access the server. Initialization of the software is working and all other clients are able to access. After an investigation, you decide that it is not a hardware problem. What is the probable cause?

    35. A. Insufficient extended memory in client PC

    B. Network card configured to use wrong transceiver in server

    C. Network card configured to use wrong transceiver at client

    D. Excessive number of collisions

     

  35. Your network uses NWLink protocol. Initialization of the software is OK, but the client is unable to access the network. All other client PCs are able to access. Why is this so?

    36. A. wrong network driver

    B. client has insufficient extended memory

    C. Network card has wrong I/O port

    D. Network card uses wrong frame type

     

  36. Your network is as follows: 9 servers, 200 NT clients, NetBEUI protocol, no bridges and no routers. Your network has poor performance. You decide that the problem is caused by a broadcast storm. How do you solve this problem?

    37. A. segment the network with a router

    B. segment the network with a repeater

    C. replace NetBEUI with DLC, then network with bridge

    D. replace NetBEUI with TCP/IP, then network with router

     

  37. You just added 55 clients on a 10BaseT network. There is slow response during the peak period. Your MIS manager has appointed you to come up with an economical solution to this problem.

    38. Ethernet concentrators change to Ethernet switches

  38. Which WAN link will provide bandwidth as needed?

    39. Frame Relay

  39. Which connectivity device works at the network layer and is capable of selecting multiple data paths?

    40. Routers

  40. Which WAN link as a variable packet size?

    41. Frame Relay

  41. What wide area network service can provide reliable connection over unreliable switched circuits?

    42. X.25

  42. Using the Microsoft structured approach to troubleshooting, which of the following would not be something you would do?

    43. A. set a priority to the problem

    B. test to isolate the cause

    C. collect information to identify the symptoms

    D. run a test lab to recreate the problem

  43. When collecting information, you should ask the user as many questions as possible. TRUE
  44. It can be very helpful when troubleshooting network problems if you have a baseline to go from. TRUE
  45. A baseline should only be created from information that you gathered during the busiest time of day. FALSE (all day)
  46. There is no benefit to have all of the computers on the network being the same make model and the same internal hardware. FALSE (it's easier to troubleshoot and install additional components if there is a uniform)
  47. One way to cut down on the amount of time that you spend troubleshooting the network is to implement a good security plan. TRUE
  48. You would use Network Monitor in alert mode to notify administrators if significantly monitored events on a servers' hard drives that exceed threshold values. FALSE
  49. Which of the following is not a place that you would look for help in solving a problem in a real work world situation?

    50. A. internet B. the Microsoft 1-800 # C. fellow employees D. periodicals

  50. An oscilloscope examine packet types, errors and traffic to and from each computer on a network. FALSE